Derivative of Convolution

Derivative of Convolution
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Assume that $f(x),g(x)$ are positive and are in $L^1$. Moreover, they are differentiable and their derivative is integrable. Let $h(x)=f(x)*g(x)$, the convolution of $f$ and $g$. Does the derivative of $h(x)$ exist? If yes, how can we prove that $$ \frac{d}{dx}(f(x)*g(x)) = \left(\frac{d}{dx}f(x)\right)*g(x)$$

Thanks

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3 Answers

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Using this thread, and the fact that if $f_1$ and $f_2$ are two integrable functions, $\mathcal F(f\star g)=\mathcal F(f)\cdot\mathcal F(g)$, we have $$\mathcal F\left(\frac d{dx}(f\star g)\right)(x)=ix\mathcal F\left((f\star g)\right)(x)=ix \mathcal F(f)(x)\cdot \mathcal F(g)(x),$$ and $$\mathcal F\left(\left(\frac d{dx}f\right)\star g\right)(x)=\left(\mathcal F\left(\frac d{dx}f\right)\right)\cdot\left(\mathcal F(g)(x)\right)=ix \mathcal F(f)(x)\cdot \mathcal F(g)(x).$$ We conclude by uniqueness of Fourier transform.

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Definition: $$h(x)=f*g(x)=\int_A f(x-t)g(t)dt$$ where A is a support of function $q()$, i.e. $A=\{t:q(t)\ne 0\}$

Let's calculate derivative:

$$\frac {dh}{dx}=\underset{dx\rightarrow0}{\lim} \frac {(\int_A f(x+dx-t)g(t)dt-\int_A f(x-t)g(t)dt)}{dx}=\underset{dx\rightarrow0}{\lim}(\int_A \frac{(f(x+dx-t)-f(x-t))}{dx}g(t)dt)$$

If we assume that there exists some integrable function $q(t)$, such that for $t$ almost everywhere $$ \left| \frac{(f(x+dx-t)-f(x-t))}{dx} \right| < q(t), \forall dx>0 $$

I.e. $$ \mu\{t: \left| \frac{(f(x+dx-t)-f(x-t))}{dx} \right| \ge q(t)\}=0,\forall dx >0 $$

then by the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem we can push the limit inside integral.

$$\frac {dh}{dx}=\frac{d}{dx}(f*g(x))=\int_A f'(x-t)g(t)dt=f'*g$$

Under assumption that: $\int_A q(t)dt$ is bounded above. One situation is when A is a compact set and $f,g$ are continuous function in the set A with a finite number of dicontinuities.

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Note that, if $ f\in L_1(R)$ then it is Fourier transformable. Since,

$$ \left|\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-ixw}\right| \leq \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |f(x)| < \infty$$.

To prove that the convolution of two $L_{1}(R)$ functions is again an $L_{1}(R)$ function, let

$$ h(x) = \int f(t) g(x-t) dt $$

$$ \int |h(x)|dx \leq \int\int |f(t)| |g(x-t)| dt dx = \int |f(t)|\int |g(x-t)|dxdt = \int |f(t)| ||g||_1 dt = ||f||_1 ||g||_1 \Rightarrow h \in L_1(R)\,.$$

The change of the order of integration is justified by Fubini's theorem. So, you can use the Fourier technique as in Davide's answer.

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David Miller
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David Miller

David Miller brings 15 years of experience in global economics, personal finance strategy, and market dynamics. He specializes in turning complex economic trends into actionable insights for everyday readers.