Converting Limits of Integration

Converting Limits of Integration
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I have the following problem:

Sketch the region of integration for the double integral

$$\int_{0}^{2} \int_{0}^{ \pi} y dy dx$$

Rewrite the rectangular double integral as a polar double integral, and evaluate the polar integral.

Now if I didn't have to convert the integral limits I would know what to do but I'm confused as how I do that.

I know polar coordinates have the form

$$ f(r\cos\theta,r\sin\theta) rdr d\theta$$

and I know how to convert the function, which would give me

$$\iint_R r\sin\theta rdrd\theta$$

but I do not know how to convert the limits of integration and sketch them. Any help?

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2 Answers

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$\int_{0}^{2} \int_{0}^{ \pi} y dy dx$

The region is bound by $x = 0, x = 2, y = 0, y = pi$

Convert to polar $x = r \cos \theta\\ y = r \sin \theta$

$x=0\\ r\cos \theta = 0\\ \theta = \frac {\pi}{2}$

$x=2\\ r\cos \theta = 2\\ r = 2 \sec \theta$

$y=0\\ r\sin \theta = 0\\ \theta = 0$

$y=\pi\\ r\sin \theta = \pi\\ r = \pi \csc \theta$

What is the angle $\theta$ at the point $(2,\pi)$?

$\theta = \tan^{-1} \frac {\pi}2$

put it together

$\int_{0}^{\tan^{-1}\frac{\pi}2} \int_{0}^{2\sec \theta} (r \sin\theta) r\;dr\;d\theta + \int_{\tan^{-1}\frac{\pi}2}^{\frac {\pi}{2}}\int_{0}^{\pi\csc \theta} (r \sin\theta) r\;dr\;d\theta$

You may find it helpful to take one of the integrals and substitute $\phi = \frac {\pi}{2} - \theta$

$\int_{0}^{\tan^{-1}\frac2{\pi}}\int_{0}^{\pi\sec \phi} (r \cos\phi) r\;dr\;d\phi$

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You want $0\leq x\leqslant 2$ and $0\leqslant y\leqslant \pi$, which is a rectangle in the first quadrant with one apex at the origin, and two sides on the axii.

So then we want to integrate $\theta$ over that right angle: $0\leqslant \theta\leqslant \pi/2$.

But where shall we integrate $r$?

Polarising the limits gives: $0\leqslant r\cos\theta\leqslant 2$ and $0\leqslant r\sin\theta\leqslant \pi$

So $0\leqslant r\leq \min\{ \frac 2{\cos\theta}, \frac \pi{\sin\theta}\}$

Combining and separating into a disjoint union:

$${\left\{(r,\theta): 0\leqslant \theta < \arctan\frac \pi 2, 0\leqslant r\leqslant \frac 2{\cos\theta}\right\}}\\\cup{\left\{(r,\theta):\arctan\frac \pi2\leqslant \theta\leqslant \frac \pi 2, 0\leqslant r\leqslant \frac \pi{\sin\theta}\right\}} $$

PS: The answer should obviously be: $\pi^2$ , which is most easily obtained from the original expression, contrary to the normal intent of employing a change of variables.

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Robert Thorne
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Robert Thorne

Robert Thorne covers electric vehicle innovations, autonomous driving systems, global mobility trends, and automotive engineering developments.